Monday, March 6, 2017

Cut -Off Body Mass Index (BMI) For Diagnosing Malnutrition...

You are doing a new patient consultation for an 81-year-old man who has recently joined the practice. You notice that he is very thin and wonder if he may be malnourished. According to NICE, what is the cut-off body mass index (BMI) for diagnosing malnutrition?
A. < 17 kg/m􀳦
B. < 17.5 kg/m􀳦
C. < 18 kg/m􀳦
D. < 18.5 kg/m􀳦
E. < 19 kg/m􀳦

Answer: D. < 18.5 kg/m􀳦

Discussion:
Malnutrition is an important consequence of and contributor to chronic disease. It is clearly a complex and multi factorial problem that can be difficult to manage but there are a number of key points to remember for the exam.

NICE define malnutrition as the following:
 a Body Mass Index (BMI) of less than 18.5; or
 unintentional weight loss greater than 10% within the last 3-6 months; or
 a BMI of less than 20 and unintentional weight loss greater than 5% within the last 3-6 months

Around 10% of patients aged over 65 years are malnourished, the vast majority of those living independently, i.e. not in hospital or care/nursing homes. Screening for malnutrition is mostly done using MUST (Malnutrition Universal Screen Tool). The algorithm is shown below:



 it should be done on admission to care/nursing homes and hospital, or if there is concern. For example an elderly, thin patient with pressure sores
 it takes into account BMI, recent weight change and the presence of acute disease
 categorises patients into low, medium and high risk

Management of malnutrition is difficult. 
NICE recommend the following points:

Wednesday, February 15, 2017

A Patient presents With Acute Abdominal Pain Secondary To Renal stones....



A 34-year-old man presents to an emergency surgery with abdominal pain. This started earlier on in the day and is getting progressively worse. The pain is located on his left flank and radiates down into his groin. He has had no similar pain previously and is normally fit and well. Examination reveals a man who is flushed and sweaty but is otherwise unremarkable.
What is the most suitable initial management?
A. Oral ciprofloxacin
B. IM diclofenac 75 mg
C. Oral co-amoxiclav and metronidazole
D. IM morphine 5 mg
E. IM diclofenac 75 mg + start bendroflumethiazide to prevent further episodes

Answer:

Treatment After Being Bitten By Pet Dog...



A 40-yr-old man presents with a swollen erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness, 24 hours after being bitten by his pet dog. What is the best Rx?
A. Metronidazole
B. Aciclovir
C. Fluconazole
D. Flucloxacillin
E. Co-amoxiclav

Answer:

Regarding Lung Cancer....



A 65-yr -old woman has been diagnosed as having lung cancer. Which of the following statements is most appropriate?
A. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA) is commonly seen pts with small-cell
carcinoma
B. SIADH is commonly seen in pts with squamous-cell carcinoma
C. Hypercalcaemia may occur without bone metastasis
D. Paraneoplastic syndromes occur more commonly with squamous-cell carcinomas
E. Hypercalcaemia associated with bone metastasis is best treated with intravenous steroids

 Answer:

Monday, February 13, 2017

A 54 Year Old Man With Epilepsy And Ischemic Heart Disease Presents With Complains Of Lethargy

A 54-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease is seen in clinic with a 3 month history of lethargy.
Blood tests are as follows:
Hb 9.6 g/dl
MCV 123 fl
Plt 164 * 109/l
WCC 4.6 *109/l

Which one of his medications is most likely to be responsible?

A. Clopidogrel
B. Atorvastatin
C. Carbamazepine
D. Atenolol
E. Phenytoin

Answer:

Appropriate Management For A Patient With Advanced Cancer Who Presents With Tearful And Upset Behavior.

Appropriate Management For A Patient With Advanced Cancer Who Presents With Tearful And Upset Behavior. 




Answer And Discussion: