A Case Of Post traumatic Headache

A 45 year old gentleman presents with a history of headache for 3 weeks. His past history reveals a migraine headache since 20 years and a fall 3 weeks ago.

1. What further questions would you explore in the history?
2. List 3 most likely differentials?
3. Outline your management plan?

Question solved:

A Case Of Chest Pain

A 50 year old obese shopkeeper presents to your clinic with central chest pain on walking back to his shop after lunch. The pain occurred twice in the last 10 days, lasted for 10 - 15 minutes each time and subsided after the shopkeeper reached his shop and sat down. Both times when the shopkeeper reached his shop he was bathed in sweat.

1. What are the two most likely diagnosis?
2. How will you evaluate his problem?
3. How will you manage this problem?

Question Solved:

Causes of Delayed Passage Of Meconium In Newborns

Delayed meconium passage occurs in which of the following conditions?

A) Encopresis.
B) Hirschsprung disease.
C) Cystic fibrosis.
D) Hyperthyroidism.
E) B and C.

Answer;

A Case Of Sub Clinical Hypothyroidism

You are seeing a 45-year-old female in your office. As part of a routine blood panel, the patient’s TSH is noted to be elevated at 7.2 uIU/mL (0.27–4.20 uIU/mL). She has a normal free T4 and is asymptomatic. The best option is to:

A) Start levothyroxine at a low dose to normalize the TSH.
B) Begin T3 at a low dose.
C) Reassure the patient and have her follow-up for repeat thyroid studies.
D) Begin a workup for central hypothyroidism.
E) Begin methimazole.

Answer:

Treatment Of Osteoarthritis In Elderly Patients

The preferred initial therapy for elderly patients with arthralgia due to osteoarthritis is which of
the following?

A) NSAIDs.
B) COX-2 inhibitors.
C) Acetaminophen.
D) Combination narcotic analgesics.
E) Early joint replacement.

Answer:

A Case Of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

A 52-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. Her symptoms started about 5 years ago and became more bothersome within the last 6 months. She describes a dull pain in the left lower abdomen. This pain is alleviated by passing gas or having a bowel movement. The pain is generally related to eating, and she has had intermittent diarrhea and constipation with constipation predominating. Two years ago, she underwent a screening colonoscopy, which was completely normal.
Her review of systems is notable for a weight gain of about 5 pounds within the last 3 years. She is taking only amultivitamin daily.
Her physical examination is normal.

Which is the best next step?
A) Defecogram.
B) Barium enema.
C) Anorectal manometry.
D) TSH level.
E) Colonoscopy.

Answer: